As always, here’s my fairly literal translation of these verses:
5And
Boaz said, “In the day of your buying of the field from the hand of Naomi and
from Ruth the Moabitess, the wife of the dead, you have bought to raise the
name of the dead upon his inheritance.” 6And the kinsman-redeemer
said, “I am not able to redeem to myself lest I ruin my own inheritance. You,
you redeem to yourself my redemption because I am not able to redeem.”
As I study, read other commentaries, and ponder these
verses, the first thing that strikes me (again) is how much we don’t know.
First of all, why did Boaz have to tell the kinsman about
Ruth and the levirate obligation that went with the property? Bethlehem is a
small town and I am quite sure everyone knew everything about everyone else.
The kinsman had to know about Ruth and Naomi and that care of the widows came
with purchase of the land. If Naomi was still in child-bearing age, he would
know of his responsibility to her; and even if she wasn’t, he would know that
Mahlon’s widow was still of child-bearing age.
So why does he think he’s “done” in v4, and why is v5 such a
big surprise?
An interesting perspective, once again from Jewish
tradition, is what was recorded in the Targum that what the kinsman actually
said was, “On this ground I cannot redeem it, because I have a wife already;
and I have no desire to take another, lest there should be contention in my
house, and I should become a corrupter of my inheritance. Do thou redeem it,
for thou hast no wife; for I cannot redeem it” (as reported by Adam Clarke, ca.
1820).
If this is true, it would certainly be understandable. That
is probably the very first question that comes to my mind with the whole
levirate marriage thing – what if the “brother” is already married? Of course,
polygamy was culturally perfectly acceptable in itself but, that being said, I
would still think a man would hesitate to take a second wife if he was happily
married to his first. Both Abraham and Jacob suffered considerable domestic
turmoil as a result of taking two wives. Acceptable or not, polygamy has to be
a recipe for endless family contention.
So we could say it was understandable if he simply didn’t
want to wreck his own home. However, there is no clause in the levirate
marriage obligation that allowed the man to excuse himself for any reason. In fact, if he refused – for
any reason – he got his sandal
removed and spit in his face (Deut 25:7-9).
So apparently he did know about the levirate obligation. He
just didn’t want to; and apparently
it was culturally acceptable for him to refuse, simply on the grounds, “I don’t
want to.” How could this be? How could it be culturally acceptable in Israel
for a man to just disregard a very clear Scriptural injunction? It could be
because we are in the period of the Judges when “every man did that which was
right in his own eyes.” This period in Jewish history isn’t exactly
characterized by careful observance of the Law! All it would take is a few
cases where men refused their levirate obligations, suffered no consequences at
all, and now no one takes the obligation seriously any more. That certainly
wouldn’t be surprising.
There is also an entirely different perspective. It is
possible that, culturally speaking, no one thought the levirate obligation
applied to “foreign” marriages. Perhaps the kinsman was quite aware of the
levirate obligation but thought it only extended as far as Naomi, but not to
Ruth. And if Naomi was past child-bearing age, he simply didn’t think he had
any obligation to this “Moabite foreigner.” I can hear the Bethlehem gossip
chain: “Elimelech should have never gone to Moab and Mahlon should not have
married a Moabite girl. It was all wrong.” In fact, they might have even
thought it was wrong to marry Ruth, since she was a Moabitess. It’s
even possible that, as much as people may have admired Ruth’s character,
perhaps as far as marriage was concerned she had already been branded as “bad
luck,” that no man would seriously want to marry her after what happened to
Mahlon – and therefore, no one even thought the levirate obligation would
include Ruth.
But then, if culturally speaking, no one thought the kinsman
had any obligation to Ruth, why does Boaz say he did? I can think of two
possibilities. It is possible that Boaz is such a good man that he doesn’t care
what is or isn’t culturally acceptable. Even if popular opinion is that the
kinsman “doesn’t have to” (regardless of what the Law said), Boaz is simply
standing his Scriptural ground and saying, “Oh, yes, you do.” It is also
possible and I think this the most likely that Naomi had made it a condition of
the purchase that whoever redeemed the land had to marry Ruth and give her
children. Remember back in 3:1 Naomi said, “My daughter, should I not try to
find a home for you, where you will be well provided for?” We do know for a
fact that Naomi is trying to get Ruth a husband and, if she had the opportunity
to include a levirate responsibility with the sale, you can bet she would.
So here is what I think is going on: As far as the land is
concerned, people were still following the Biblical process of redemption and
following the “order” of succession, so there was no question the other kinsman
was “first” and Boaz next after him. As far as the levirate obligation to Ruth,
either they simply weren’t following those Scriptures or perhaps they sincerely
didn’t think it applied to Ruth since she was a Moabitess. Regardless, Naomi
has made it a condition of the sale that Ruth does go with it. All of this
would explain how it was possible the other kinsman didn’t “know” about his
obligation to Ruth. This would also explain how he could “get out of it” so
easily. Apparently no one saw it as an obligation that went with the land. But
Naomi, in her desire to provide for Ruth, had made it a condition of the sale.
So he could say yes, I want to buy the land, then, when he found out there was
a condition of the sale, simply say, “If that’s the condition, then no I don’t
want to.”
That would certainly make sense. This explanation would also
leave everyone in the best light, particularly the kinsman. I rather think
myself this the best position, to not leave the kinsman condemned. It very
easily looks like he was a villain for not accepting his responsibility; but,
even if we were to convene a court today and put him on trial, I think we’d end
up stuck on the fact that Ruth was a Moabitess, and whether or not the levirate
responsibility really extended beyond Naomi to her.
The problem with it all is that we simply don’t know. All we
really know is what is written, that Boaz offered the kinsman his rightful
privilege and he refused it, leaving Boaz the full, uncontested right to
purchase the land and marry Ruth.
Obviously, that is all the Lord thinks we need to know. And
perhaps that is because it is all written down for a much larger purpose than
to satisfy our curiosities about the affairs of an ancient culture. As I said
in an earlier post, I strongly suspect that this is all wrapped up in the analogy
of Redemption. Naomi is Israel, Ruth is the Gentile church, Boaz is Christ, the
kinsman is the Law – and when offered the opportunity to redeem both Israel and
the Gentile world, the Law can only respond to Jesus, “You redeem them, for I
cannot.”
Whether that analogy was actually of divine intent or simply
a fractal of reality, I’m not sure, but it certainly “works!” There is so much we don’t know (about so many
things), but one thing we do know is that the great Redeemer is not only
willing but also able. Our great Boaz did in fact prevail and welcomes us from
our world of hopeless poverty into the safety and security of His fabulous wealth.
The Lord doesn’t explain everything to us, but He sure tells
us what matters most!
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